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so i was reading this:

"Just as an object will not accelerate if all the forces acting on it cancel (the net force equals zero) if all the torques sum to zero then the object is said to be in static equilibrium and will not accelerate clockwise or counterclockwise. The object may still be rotating, but its period (or frequency) will be constant as there is no net force twisting the object to accelerate or decelerate" -mymcat.com

 

So the fact that it is rotating at some constant velocity means there's no net torque on. But the reason something rotates is a result of F_c? So this is when there's no net torque but there's an F_net?

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so i was reading this:

"Just as an object will not accelerate if all the forces acting on it cancel (the net force equals zero) if all the torques sum to zero then the object is said to be in static equilibrium and will not accelerate clockwise or counterclockwise. The object may still be rotating, but its period (or frequency) will be constant as there is no net force twisting the object to accelerate or decelerate" -mymcat.com

 

So the fact that it is rotating at some constant velocity means there's no net torque on. But the reason something rotates is a result of F_c? So this is when there's no net torque but there's an F_net?

 

Newton's first law : object will continue moving until a force acts upon it to stop it or change it's direction.

 

Something can be spinning and still be in rotational equilibrium because no net force is causing the object to accelerate. When you think of forces, think about F = ma. Forces only affect acceleration, not it's integral (velocity).

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